PHYSICS 11th Class MCQS for FBISE 2025

 PHYSICS 11th Class MCQS for FBISE 2025



Below are additional sets of 10 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) for each of the specified chapters from the 11th class Physics curriculum of the Federal Board of Intermediate and Secondary Education (FBISE), Islamabad. These MCQs are designed to complement the previous sets, focusing on different aspects of the topics to provide further practice. They align with the FBISE syllabus and include key concepts, numerical problems, and conceptual questions. Each question has four options, one correct answer, and a brief explanation where necessary.
Chapter 1: Measurements (10 Additional MCQs)
  1. Which of the following is a derived unit?
    a) Meter
    b) Kilogram
    c) Newton
    d) Second
    Answer: c) Newton
    Explanation: Newton is derived from base units (kg·m/s²), while meter, kilogram, and second are base units.
  2. The number of significant figures in 2300.0 is:
    a) 2
    b) 3
    c) 4
    d) 5
    Answer: d) 5
    Explanation: All digits, including the trailing zero after the decimal, are significant.
  3. The dimensions of energy are:
    a) [MLT⁻²]
    b) [ML²T⁻²]
    c) [ML²T⁻¹]
    d) [MLT⁻¹]
    Answer: b) [ML²T⁻²]
    Explanation: Energy = force × distance = [MLT⁻²] × [L] = [ML²T⁻²].
  4. A length is measured as 4.5 m with an error of ±0.2 m. The relative error is:
    a) 0.044
    b) 0.022
    c) 0.066
    d) 0.088
    Answer: a) 0.044
    Explanation: Relative error = 0.2 / 4.5 ≈ 0.044.
  5. The least count of a screw gauge with a pitch of 1 mm and 100 circular scale divisions is:
    a) 0.01 mm
    b) 0.1 mm
    c) 0.05 mm
    d) 0.02 mm
    Answer: a) 0.01 mm
    Explanation: Least count = pitch / number of divisions = 1 mm / 100 = 0.01 mm.
  6. One parsec is a unit of:
    a) Time
    b) Distance
    c) Speed
    d) Energy
    Answer: b) Distance
    Explanation: A parsec is a unit of astronomical distance based on parallax.
  7. The dimension of power is:
    a) [ML²T⁻³]
    b) [MLT⁻³]
    c) [ML²T⁻²]
    d) [MLT⁻²]
    Answer: a) [ML²T⁻³]
    Explanation: Power = energy / time = [ML²T⁻²] / [T] = [ML²T⁻³].
  8. The precision of an instrument is related to its:
    a) Least count
    b) Range
    c) Size
    d) Weight
    Answer: a) Least count
    Explanation: Smaller least count indicates higher precision.
  9. Which of the following quantities has no unit?
    a) Refractive index
    b) Pressure
    c) Velocity
    d) Force
    Answer: a) Refractive index
    Explanation: Refractive index is a ratio of speeds, hence unitless.
  10. The error in a measurement of 10.0 kg with an uncertainty of ±0.5 kg is expressed as a percentage:
    a) 2%
    b) 5%
    c) 10%
    d) 1%
    Answer: b) 5%
    Explanation: Percentage error = (0.5 / 10.0) × 100 = 5%.
Chapter 2: Vectors and Equilibrium (10 Additional MCQs)
  1. The scalar product of two vectors A and B is maximum when the angle between them is:
    a) 0°
    b) 90°
    c) 180°
    d) 45°
    Answer: a) 0°
    Explanation: A·B = AB cos 0° = AB (maximum value).
  2. The magnitude of the cross product of two vectors is equal to the area of:
    a) Triangle
    b) Rectangle
    c) Parallelogram
    d) Circle
    Answer: c) Parallelogram
    Explanation: |A × B| = AB sin θ, which is the area of the parallelogram formed by A and B.
  3. A body is in translational equilibrium if:
    a) Net torque is zero
    b) Net force is zero
    c) Velocity is constant
    d) Acceleration is constant
    Answer: b) Net force is zero
    Explanation: Translational equilibrium requires ΣF = 0.
  4. The resultant of two vectors of magnitudes 5 N and 12 N cannot be:
    a) 7 N
    b) 13 N
    c) 17 N
    d) 20 N
    Answer: d) 20 N
    Explanation: Resultant ranges from 12 – 5 = 7 N to 12 + 5 = 17 N.
  5. The unit vector in the direction of a vector A is:
    a) A / |A|
    b) |A| / A
    c) A × |A|
    d) A + |A|
    Answer: a) A / |A|
    Explanation: Unit vector = vector / its magnitude.
  6. The torque produced by a force depends on:
    a) Force only
    b) Moment arm only
    c) Both force and moment arm
    d) Angle only
    Answer: c) Both force and moment arm
    Explanation: Torque = F × r × sin θ.
  7. Two forces of 10 N each act at an angle of 60°. The magnitude of their resultant is:
    a) 10 N
    b) 17.3 N
    c) 20 N
    d) 5 N
    Answer: b) 17.3 N
    Explanation: R = √(10² + 10² + 2 × 10 × 10 × cos 60°) = √300 ≈ 17.3 N.
  8. The direction of torque is determined by:
    a) Right-hand rule
    b) Left-hand rule
    c) Scalar product
    d) Angle of force
    Answer: a) Right-hand rule
    Explanation: Torque direction follows the right-hand rule for cross products.
  9. If a body is in equilibrium, the sum of clockwise torques equals:
    a) Sum of anticlockwise torques
    b) Zero
    c) Net force
    d) Net acceleration
    Answer: a) Sum of anticlockwise torques
    Explanation: For rotational equilibrium, Στ = 0.
  10. The angle between two vectors is 90° if their dot product is:
    a) Positive
    b) Negative
    c) Zero
    d) Equal to their magnitudes
    Answer: c) Zero
    Explanation: A·B = AB cos 90° = 0.
Chapter 3: Motion and Force (10 Additional MCQs)
  1. The area under a velocity-time graph represents:
    a) Acceleration
    b) Displacement
    c) Force
    d) Momentum
    Answer: b) Displacement
    Explanation: Area = velocity × time = displacement.
  2. Newton’s second law can be written as:
    a) F = ma
    b) F = mv
    c) F = m/t
    d) F = m/a
    Answer: a) F = ma
    Explanation: Force = mass × acceleration.
  3. The impulse of a force is equal to:
    a) Change in momentum
    b) Change in velocity
    c) Change in acceleration
    d) Change in energy
    Answer: a) Change in momentum
    Explanation: Impulse = F × t = Δp.
  4. A body of mass 5 kg accelerates at 2 m/s². The force acting on it is:
    a) 2.5 N
    b) 5 N
    c) 10 N
    d) 20 N
    Answer: c) 10 N
    Explanation: F = ma = 5 × 2 = 10 N.
  5. The coefficient of friction depends on:
    a) Nature of surfaces
    b) Area of contact
    c) Mass of the body
    d) Speed of the body
    Answer: a) Nature of surfaces
    Explanation: Friction depends on surface properties, not area or mass.
  6. The horizontal range of a projectile is given by:
    a) v² sin θ / g
    b) v² sin 2θ / g
    c) v² cos θ / g
    d) v² tan θ / g
    Answer: b) v² sin 2θ / g
    Explanation: Range = (v² sin 2θ) / g.
  7. The law of conservation of momentum applies when:
    a) No external force acts
    b) External force is constant
    c) Friction is present
    d) Acceleration is zero
    Answer: a) No external force acts
    Explanation: Momentum is conserved in the absence of external forces.
  8. A ball is thrown vertically upward. At the highest point, its:
    a) Velocity is zero
    b) Acceleration is zero
    c) Momentum is maximum
    d) Kinetic energy is maximum
    Answer: a) Velocity is zero
    Explanation: At the peak, velocity = 0, but acceleration = g.
  9. The force required to stop a moving object depends on:
    a) Mass and velocity
    b) Mass only
    c) Velocity only
    d) Time only
    Answer: a) Mass and velocity
    Explanation: Force relates to change in momentum (mv).
  10. The trajectory of a projectile is:
    a) Linear
    b) Circular
    c) Parabolic
    d) Elliptical
    Answer: c) Parabolic
    Explanation: Projectile motion follows a parabolic path due to gravity.
Chapter 4: Work and Energy (10 Additional MCQs)
  1. Work done by a conservative force depends on:
    a) Path taken
    b) Initial and final positions
    c) Time taken
    d) Speed of the body
    Answer: b) Initial and final positions
    Explanation: Conservative forces (e.g., gravity) are path-independent.
  2. The kinetic energy of a 2 kg object moving at 3 m/s is:
    a) 9 J
    b) 18 J
    c) 6 J
    d) 12 J
    Answer: a) 9 J
    Explanation: KE = ½ mv² = ½ × 2 × (3)² = 9 J.
  3. The work done by friction is:
    a) Always positive
    b) Always negative
    c) Zero
    d) Can be positive or negative
    Answer: b) Always negative
    Explanation: Friction opposes motion, so work done is negative.
  4. The potential energy of a spring is given by:
    a) ½ kx²
    b) kx²
    c) ½ kx
    d) kx
    Answer: a) ½ kx²
    Explanation: Elastic potential energy = ½ kx², where k is the spring constant.
  5. A body falls freely from a height of 20 m (g = 10 m/s²). Its potential energy at the top is:
    a) 200 J
    b) 400 J
    c) 600 J
    d) 800 J
    Answer: (depends on mass, assume m = 2 kg) b) 400 J
    Explanation: PE = mgh = 2 × 10 × 20 = 400 J.
  6. The rate of doing work is called:
    a) Energy
    b) Power
    c) Force
    d) Momentum
    Answer: b) Power
    Explanation: Power = work / time.
  7. A machine does 500 J of work in 10 s. Its power is:
    a) 50 W
    b) 500 W
    c) 5 W
    d) 5000 W
    Answer: a) 50 W
    Explanation: Power = 500 / 10 = 50 W.
  8. The work-energy theorem states that work done equals:
    a) Change in kinetic energy
    b) Change in potential energy
    c) Change in total energy
    d) Change in momentum
    Answer: a) Change in kinetic energy
    Explanation: Work = ΔKE.
  9. Energy stored in a compressed spring is:
    a) Kinetic energy
    b) Potential energy
    c) Thermal energy
    d) Chemical energy
    Answer: b) Potential energy
    Explanation: Compression stores elastic potential energy.
  10. If the speed of a body doubles, its kinetic energy:
    a) Doubles
    b) Quadruples
    c) Halves
    d) Remains same
    Answer: b) Quadruples
    Explanation: KE ∝ v², so (2v)² = 4 times KE.
Chapter 5: Circular Motion (10 Additional MCQs)
  1. The centripetal force is provided by:
    a) A real force
    b) A fictitious force
    c) No force
    d) Tangential force
    Answer: a) A real force
    Explanation: Centripetal force is real (e.g., tension, gravity).
  2. The centripetal acceleration of a body moving in a circle of radius 2 m at 4 m/s is:
    a) 4 m/s²
    b) 8 m/s²
    c) 16 m/s²
    d) 2 m/s²
    Answer: b) 8 m/s²
    Explanation: a = v²/r = (4)² / 2 = 8 m/s².
  3. The frequency of rotation is the number of revolutions per:
    a) Second
    b) Minute
    c) Hour
    d) Cycle
    Answer: a) Second
    Explanation: Frequency = revolutions per second (Hz).
  4. The angular velocity of a body completing one revolution in 2 s is:
    a) π rad/s
    b) 2π rad/s
    c) π/2 rad/s
    d) 4π rad/s
    Answer: a) π rad/s
    Explanation: ω = 2π / T = 2π / 2 = π rad/s.
  5. The centripetal force increases if:
    a) Radius increases
    b) Velocity decreases
    c) Mass increases
    d) Radius doubles
    Answer: c) Mass increases
    Explanation: F = mv²/r, so F ∝ m.
  6. In circular motion, the linear velocity is always:
    a) Parallel to the radius
    b) Perpendicular to the radius
    c) Along the radius
    d) Zero
    Answer: b) Perpendicular to the radius
    Explanation: Linear velocity is tangential to the circular path.
  7. A satellite orbits the Earth due to:
    a) Frictional force
    b) Gravitational force
    c) Magnetic force
    d) Centrifugal force
    Answer: b) Gravitational force
    Explanation: Gravity provides the centripetal force for orbital motion.
  8. The period of rotation is inversely proportional to:
    a) Angular velocity
    b) Linear velocity
    c) Radius
    d) Mass
    Answer: a) Angular velocity
    Explanation: T = 2π / ω.
  9. The centripetal force on a body is zero when:
    a) Velocity is zero
    b) Radius is infinite
    c) Mass is zero
    d) All of the above
    Answer: d) All of the above
    Explanation: F = mv²/r; if v = 0, r = ∞, or m = 0, then F = 0.
  10. The angular momentum of a body in circular motion is given by:
    a) mvr
    b) mv/r
    c) mr²ω
    d) Both a and c
    Answer: d) Both a and c
    Explanation: L = mvr = mr²ω (since v = rω).
Chapter 6: Fluid Dynamics (10 Additional MCQs)
  1. The equation of continuity is expressed as:
    a) A₁v₁ = A₂v₂
    b) P₁ + ρgh₁ = P₂ + ρgh₂
    c) F = 6πηrv
    d) P = F/A
    Answer: a) A₁v₁ = A₂v₂
    Explanation: It ensures constant mass flow rate.
  2. Bernoulli’s equation applies to:
    a) Compressible fluids
    b) Incompressible, non-viscous fluids
    c) Viscous fluids
    d) Stationary fluids
    Answer: b) Incompressible, non-viscous fluids
    Explanation: Assumptions for Bernoulli’s equation include incompressibility and negligible viscosity.
  3. The viscous drag force is proportional to:
    a) Velocity²
    b) Velocity
    c) Radius²
    d) Density
    Answer: b) Velocity
    Explanation: For Stokes’ law, F ∝ v.
  4. The critical velocity for streamline flow depends on:
    a) Viscosity
    b) Density
    c) Pipe diameter
    d) All of the above
    Answer: d) All of the above
    Explanation: Critical velocity ∝ η / (ρd).
  5. The pressure inside a soap bubble is:
    a) Equal to atmospheric pressure
    b) Greater than atmospheric pressure
    c) Less than atmospheric pressure
    d) Zero
    Answer: b) Greater than atmospheric pressure
    Explanation: Excess pressure = 4σ/r (σ is surface tension).
  6. The terminal velocity of a spherical object is proportional to:
    a) Radius
    b) Radius²
    c) 1/Radius
    d) 1/Radius²
    Answer: b) Radius²
    Explanation: v ∝ r² (from Stokes’ law and weight balance).
  7. The lift on an airplane wing is explained by:
    a) Equation of continuity
    b) Bernoulli’s principle
    c) Stokes’ law
    d) Pascal’s law
    Answer: b) Bernoulli’s principle
    Explanation: Faster air over the wing reduces pressure, creating lift.
  8. The dimension of surface tension is:
    a) [MT⁻²]
    b) [MLT⁻²]
    c) [ML⁻¹T⁻²]
    d) [MLT⁻¹]
    Answer: a) [MT⁻²]
    Explanation: Surface tension = force / length = [MLT⁻²] / [L] = [MT⁻²].
  9. The flow rate of a fluid through a pipe is measured in:
    a) m³/s
    b) m/s
    c) kg/s
    d) N/s
    Answer: a) m³/s
    Explanation: Flow rate = volume per unit time.
  10. The pressure difference in a venturi meter is used to calculate:
    a) Density
    b) Viscosity
    c) Flow velocity
    d) Surface tension
    Answer: c) Flow velocity
    Explanation: Venturi meter uses Bernoulli’s principle to measure velocity.
Chapter 7: Oscillations (10 Additional MCQs)
  1. The time period of a mass-spring system is independent of:
    a) Mass
    b) Spring constant
    c) Amplitude
    d) Gravity
    Answer: c) Amplitude
    Explanation: T = 2π√(m/k), independent of amplitude.
  2. The maximum acceleration in SHM occurs at:
    a) Mean position
    b) Extreme position
    c) Halfway position
    d) Any position
    Answer: b) Extreme position
    Explanation: a = -ω²x, maximum at x = ±A.
  3. The frequency of a simple pendulum is 0.5 Hz. Its time period is:
    a) 0.5 s
    b) 1 s
    c) 2 s
    d) 4 s
    Answer: c) 2 s
    Explanation: T = 1/f = 1/0.5 = 2 s.
  4. The energy of a harmonic oscillator is proportional to:
    a) Amplitude
    b) Amplitude²
    c) Frequency
    d) Time period
    Answer: b) Amplitude²
    Explanation: Total energy ∝ A².
  5. The restoring force in a simple pendulum is provided by:
    a) Tension
    b) Gravity
    c) Friction
    d) Spring force
    Answer: b) Gravity
    Explanation: The component of gravitational force restores the bob.
  6. In damped oscillations, the amplitude:
    a) Increases
    b) Decreases
    c) Remains constant
    d) Becomes zero instantly
    Answer: b) Decreases
    Explanation: Damping reduces amplitude over time.
  7. The angular frequency of a simple pendulum is:
    a) √(g/L)
    b) √(L/g)
    c) g/L
    d) L/g
    Answer: a) √(g/L)
    Explanation: ω = √(g/L).
  8. Forced oscillations occur when a system is driven by:
    a) Internal force
    b) External periodic force
    c) Frictional force
    d) Restoring force
    Answer: b) External periodic force
    Explanation: External force drives the system at its frequency.
  9. The time period of a simple pendulum increases if:
    a) Length decreases
    b) Mass increases
    c) Length increases
    d) Gravity increases
    Answer: c) Length increases
    Explanation: T ∝ √L.
  10. In SHM, the kinetic energy is maximum when:
    a) Displacement is maximum
    b) Displacement is zero
    c) Acceleration is maximum
    d) Velocity is zero
    Answer: b) Displacement is zero
    Explanation: KE is maximum at the mean position (x = 0).
Chapter 8: Waves (10 Additional MCQs)
  1. The speed of a transverse wave on a string depends on:
    a) Tension
    b) Mass per unit length
    c) Both a and b
    d) Amplitude
    Answer: c) Both a and b
    Explanation: v = √(T/μ).
  2. The wavelength of a wave with frequency 200 Hz and speed 400 m/s is:
    a) 0.5 m
    b) 1 m
    c) 2 m
    d) 4 m
    Answer: c) 2 m
    Explanation: λ = v/f = 400 / 200 = 2 m.
  3. In a longitudinal wave, particles of the medium vibrate:
    a) Perpendicular to wave direction
    b) Parallel to wave direction
    c) In circular paths
    d) Randomly
    Answer: b) Parallel to wave direction
    Explanation: Longitudinal waves involve parallel oscillations.
  4. The phenomenon of beats occurs due to:
    a) Diffraction
    b) Interference
    c) Refraction
    d) Polarization
    Answer: b) Interference
    Explanation: Beats result from the superposition of waves with slightly different frequencies.
  5. The speed of sound in air at 0°C is approximately:
    a) 331 m/s
    b) 343 m/s
    c) 300 m/s
    d) 400 m/s
    Answer: a) 331 m/s
    Explanation: Standard value at 0°C.
  6. A stationary wave has:
    a) No energy transfer
    b) Maximum energy transfer
    c) Variable wavelength
    d) No nodes
    Answer: a) No energy transfer
    Explanation: Stationary waves store energy in nodes and antinodes.
  7. The Doppler effect changes the:
    a) Amplitude of a wave
    b) Frequency of a wave
    c) Speed of a wave
    d) Wavelength only
    Answer: b) Frequency of a wave
    Explanation: Relative motion alters perceived frequency.
  8. The distance between a node and an antinode in a stationary wave is:
    a) λ
    b) λ/2
    c) λ/4
    d) 2λ
    Answer: c) λ/4
    Explanation: Node-to-antinode distance = λ/4.
  9. The intensity of a wave is proportional to:
    a) Amplitude
    b) Amplitude²
    c) Frequency
    d) Wavelength
    Answer: b) Amplitude²
    Explanation: I ∝ A².
  10. Progressive waves transfer:
    a) Energy
    b) Mass
    c) Momentum
    d) Both a and c
    Answer: a) Energy
    Explanation: Progressive waves carry energy through the medium.
Chapter 9: Physical Optics (10 Additional MCQs)
  1. The condition for destructive interference is a path difference of:
    a) nλ
    b) (n + ½)λ
    c) λ/2
    d) λ/4
    Answer: b) (n + ½)λ
    Explanation: Destructive interference occurs at half-integer wavelengths.
  2. The diffraction grating produces:
    a) A single bright spot
    b) Multiple bright fringes
    c) No fringes
    d) Dark fringes only
    Answer: b) Multiple bright fringes
    Explanation: Gratings produce a series of maxima.
  3. The fringe spacing in Young’s double-slit experiment is given by:
    a) λD/d
    b) λd/D
    c) Dd/λ
    d) λ/Dd
    Answer: a) λD/d
    Explanation: β = λD/d, where D is screen distance and d is slit separation.
  4. Polarization of light can be achieved by:
    a) Reflection
    b) Refraction
    c) Diffraction
    d) Interference
    Answer: a) Reflection
    Explanation: Polarization occurs at Brewster’s angle during reflection.
  5. The central maximum in a single-slit diffraction pattern is due to:
    a) Destructive interference
    b) Constructive interference
    c) Refraction
    d) Polarization
    Answer: b) Constructive interference
    Explanation: All waves from the slit add constructively at the center.
  6. The resolving power of a grating increases with:
    a) Number of lines
    b) Wavelength
    c) Slit width
    d) Distance to screen
    Answer: a) Number of lines
    Explanation: More lines improve resolution.
  7. The colors in an oil film on water are due to:
    a) Diffraction
    b) Interference
    c) Refraction
    d) Polarization
    Answer: b) Interference
    Explanation: Thin-film interference causes color patterns.
  8. The minimum path difference for constructive interference is:
    a) 0
    b) λ/2
    c) λ/4
    d) λ
    Answer: a) 0
    Explanation: Zero path difference results in constructive interference.
  9. The intensity of light in a diffraction pattern is maximum at:
    a) Edges
    b) Center
    c) Dark fringes
    d) Halfway points
    Answer: b) Center
    Explanation: Central maximum has the highest intensity.
  10. Light waves are:
    a) Longitudinal
    b) Transverse
    c) Mechanical
    d) Stationary
    Answer: b) Transverse
    Explanation: Light is an electromagnetic transverse wave.
Chapter 10: Optical Instruments (10 Additional MCQs)
  1. The eyepiece of a microscope acts as:
    a) A converging lens
    b) A diverging lens
    c) A plane mirror
    d) A prism
    Answer: a) A converging lens
    Explanation: The eyepiece magnifies the image formed by the objective.
  2. The magnifying power of an astronomical telescope in normal adjustment is:
    a) fₒ / fₑ
    b) fₑ / fₒ
    c) fₒ + fₑ
    d) fₒ × fₑ
    Answer: a) fₒ / fₑ
    Explanation: M = focal length of objective / focal length of eyepiece.
  3. The image formed by a simple microscope is:
    a) Real and inverted
    b) Virtual and erect
    c) Real and erect
    d) Virtual and inverted
    Answer: b) Virtual and erect
    Explanation: A simple microscope forms a magnified virtual image.
  4. The critical angle in optical fibers is related to:
    a) Refractive index
    b) Wavelength
    c) Intensity
    d) Frequency
    Answer: a) Refractive index
    Explanation: Critical angle depends on the refractive indices of core and cladding.
  5. A compound microscope has a high magnification because:
    a) Objective has a short focal length
    b) Eyepiece has a long focal length
    c) Both lenses are diverging
    d) Objective has a long focal length
    Answer: a) Objective has a short focal length
    Explanation: Short focal length of the objective gives high magnification.
  6. The resolving power of a telescope is limited by:
    a) Focal length
    b) Aperture diameter
    c) Eyepiece magnification
    d) Lens material
    Answer: b) Aperture diameter
    Explanation: Larger aperture improves resolving power.
  7. The final image in a Galilean telescope is:
    a) Inverted
    b) Erect
    c) Real
    d) Diminished
    Answer: b) Erect
    Explanation: Galilean telescopes use a diverging eyepiece, producing an erect image.
  8. The length of an astronomical telescope in normal adjustment is:
    a) fₒ – fₑ
    b) fₒ + fₑ
    c) fₒ / fₑ
    d) fₑ / fₒ
    Answer: b) fₒ + fₑ
    Explanation: Length = sum of focal lengths of objective and eyepiece.
  9. A spectrometer uses a diffraction grating to:
    a) Magnify objects
    b) Disperse light
    c) Polarize light
    d) Reflect light
    Answer: b) Disperse light
    Explanation: Gratings separate light into its spectral components.
  10. The main advantage of optical fibers is:
    a) Low cost
    b) High data transmission rate
    c) Small size
    d) Both b and c
    Answer: d) Both b and c
    Explanation: Optical fibers offer high-speed data transfer and compactness.
Chapter 11: Heat and Thermodynamics (10 Additional MCQs)
  1. The internal energy of a system is a:
    a) State function
    b) Path function
    c) Vector quantity
    d) Dimensionless quantity
    Answer: a) State function
    Explanation: Internal energy depends only on the state, not the path.
  2. In an isobaric process, which quantity remains constant?
    a) Volume
    b) Pressure
    c) Temperature
    d) Internal energy
    Answer: b) Pressure
    Explanation: Isobaric means constant pressure.
  3. The work done in an isothermal expansion of an ideal gas is:
    a) Zero
    b) nRT ln(V₂/V₁)
    c) nRT
    d) nRΔT
    Answer: b) nRT ln(V₂/V₁)
    Explanation: W = nRT ln(V₂/V₁) for isothermal processes.
  4. The entropy of an isolated system:
    a) Decreases
    b) Increases
    c) Remains constant
    d) Becomes zero
    Answer: b) Increases
    Explanation: Second law: entropy of an isolated system increases.
  5. The efficiency of a Carnot engine operating between 400 K and 300 K is:
    a) 25%
    b) 33%
    c) 50%
    d) 75%
    Answer: a) 25%
    Explanation: η = 1 – (T₂/T₁) = 1 – (300/400) = 0.25 = 25%.
  6. The molar specific heat at constant volume for a monatomic gas is:
    a) 3R/2
    b) 5R/2
    c) R
    d) 2R
    Answer: a) 3R/2
    Explanation: Cᵥ = (f/2)R, where f = 3 for monatomic gas.
  7. In a cyclic process, the net change in internal energy is:
    a) Positive
    b) Negative
    c) Zero
    d) Infinite
    Answer: c) Zero
    Explanation: Internal energy is a state function, so ΔU = 0 for a cycle.
  8. The heat capacity of a body depends on:
    a) Mass
    b) Material
    c) Temperature change
    d) All of the above
    Answer: d) All of the above
    Explanation: Heat capacity = m × c, depends on mass and specific heat.
  9. The second law of thermodynamics introduces the concept of:
    a) Internal energy
    b) Entropy
    c) Enthalpy
    d) Work
    Answer: b) Entropy
    Explanation: It quantifies the direction of spontaneous processes.
  10. A refrigerator works by:
    a) Converting work into heat
    b) Transferring heat from cold to hot
    c) Increasing internal energy
    d) Decreasing entropy
    Answer: b) Transferring heat from cold to hot
    Explanation: Refrigerators use work to move heat against the natural flow.
Notes:
  • These additional MCQs cover a range of conceptual, numerical, and application-based questions to ensure comprehensive practice for FBISE students.
  • For further resources, students can explore FBISE past papers, textbooks like Punjab Textbook Board’s Physics for Class 11, or online platforms like www.ilmkidunya.com for solved MCQs.
  • If you need more MCQs, specific topics, or questions tailored to past papers or numerical problems, please specify, and I can provide further customized content!

=======================================

More MCQS PHYSICS 11th CLASS


Below are the requested Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) for each specified chapter from the 11th class Physics curriculum of the Federal Board of Intermediate and Secondary Education (FBISE), Islamabad. These MCQs are designed to align with the FBISE syllabus and cover key concepts from the respective chapters. Each set contains 10 MCQs with four options, one correct answer, and a brief explanation where necessary.
Chapter 1: Measurements (10 MCQs)
  1. Which of the following is a base unit in the SI system?
    a) Newton
    b) Joule
    c) Kilogram
    d) Watt
    Answer: c) Kilogram
    Explanation: Kilogram is a base unit for mass in the SI system, while Newton, Joule, and Watt are derived units.
  2. The number of significant figures in 0.00560 is:
    a) 2
    b) 3
    c) 4
    d) 5
    Answer: b) 3
    Explanation: Leading zeros are not significant; the digits 5, 6, and 0 are significant, giving 3 significant figures.
  3. The dimension of force is:
    a) [MLT⁻¹]
    b) [MLT⁻²]
    c) [ML²T⁻²]
    d) [ML⁻¹T⁻²]
    Answer: b) [MLT⁻²]
    Explanation: Force = mass × acceleration = [M] × [LT⁻²] = [MLT⁻²].
  4. A measurement of 5.2 cm has an error of ±0.1 cm. The percentage error is:
    a) 1.92%
    b) 2.92%
    c) 0.92%
    d) 3.92%
    Answer: a) 1.92%
    Explanation: Percentage error = (0.1 / 5.2) × 100 ≈ 1.92%.
  5. Which instrument is most suitable for measuring the diameter of a wire?
    a) Vernier caliper
    b) Screw gauge
    c) Meter rule
    d) Measuring tape
    Answer: b) Screw gauge
    Explanation: A screw gauge provides high precision for small measurements like the diameter of a wire.
  6. The unit of Planck’s constant in SI system is:
    a) J s
    b) J/s
    c) N m
    d) W s
    Answer: a) J s
    Explanation: Planck’s constant has dimensions of energy × time, which is Joule-second (J s).
  7. One light-year is a unit of:
    a) Time
    b) Distance
    c) Speed
    d) Energy
    Answer: b) Distance
    Explanation: A light-year is the distance light travels in one year.
  8. The least count of a vernier caliper with 10 divisions on the vernier scale and 1 mm main scale division is:
    a) 0.1 mm
    b) 0.01 mm
    c) 0.05 mm
    d) 0.2 mm
    Answer: a) 0.1 mm
    Explanation: Least count = 1 mm / 10 = 0.1 mm.
  9. Which of the following is a dimensionless quantity?
    a) Density
    b) Angle
    c) Pressure
    d) Work
    Answer: b) Angle
    Explanation: Angle is measured in radians, which is a ratio and thus dimensionless.
  10. The error in a measurement can be reduced by:
    a) Using a less precise instrument
    b) Taking multiple readings and averaging
    c) Increasing the temperature of the system
    d) Using a single reading
    Answer: b) Taking multiple readings and averaging
    Explanation: Averaging multiple readings reduces random errors.
Chapter 2: Vectors and Equilibrium (10 MCQs)
  1. A vector quantity has:
    a) Only magnitude
    b) Only direction
    c) Both magnitude and direction
    d) Neither magnitude nor direction
    Answer: c) Both magnitude and direction
    Explanation: Vectors are defined by both magnitude and direction.
  2. The dot product of two perpendicular vectors is:
    a) Zero
    b) One
    c) Negative
    d) Equal to their magnitudes
    Answer: a) Zero
    Explanation: Dot product = A·B = AB cos 90° = 0.
  3. The condition for equilibrium of a body is:
    a) Net force is zero
    b) Net torque is zero
    c) Both net force and net torque are zero
    d) Acceleration is zero
    Answer: c) Both net force and net torque are zero
    Explanation: For complete equilibrium, both translational and rotational equilibrium are required.
  4. The angle between two vectors A and B if their cross product is zero is:
    a) 0°
    b) 90°
    c) 180°
    d) 45°
    Answer: a) 0° or c) 180° (both correct, but choose a)
    Explanation: Cross product = AB sin θ = 0 when θ = 0° or 180°.
  5. The magnitude of the resultant of two equal vectors at 90° to each other is:
    a) A
    b) A√2
    c) 2A
    d) A/√2
    Answer: b) A√2
    Explanation: Resultant = √(A² + A²) = A√2.
  6. Torque is a:
    a) Scalar quantity
    b) Vector quantity
    c) Dimensionless quantity
    d) Unitless quantity
    Answer: b) Vector quantity
    Explanation: Torque has direction and is calculated as a cross product.
  7. The unit of torque in SI system is:
    a) N m
    b) N/m
    c) J/s
    d) kg m/s²
    Answer: a) N m
    Explanation: Torque = force × distance = N × m.
  8. If two forces of 3 N and 4 N act at right angles, the magnitude of their resultant is:
    a) 5 N
    b) 7 N
    c) 12 N
    d) 1 N
    Answer: a) 5 N
    Explanation: Resultant = √(3² + 4²) = √25 = 5 N.
  9. A body is in rotational equilibrium when:
    a) Net force is zero
    b) Net torque is zero
    c) Velocity is constant
    d) Acceleration is zero
    Answer: b) Net torque is zero
    Explanation: Rotational equilibrium requires zero net torque.
  10. The rectangular components of a vector are equal if the vector makes an angle with the x-axis of:
    a) 0°
    b) 45°
    c) 90°
    d) 180°
    Answer: b) 45°
    Explanation: At 45°, cos θ = sin θ, so x and y components are equal.
Chapter 3: Motion and Force (10 MCQs)
  1. The slope of a velocity-time graph gives:
    a) Displacement
    b) Acceleration
    c) Distance
    d) Speed
    Answer: b) Acceleration
    Explanation: Slope = change in velocity / time = acceleration.
  2. Newton’s first law of motion is also called the law of:
    a) Inertia
    b) Force
    c) Acceleration
    d) Momentum
    Answer: a) Inertia
    Explanation: It states that a body remains at rest or in uniform motion unless acted upon by a force.
  3. The momentum of a body is defined as:
    a) Mass × acceleration
    b) Mass × velocity
    c) Force × time
    d) Force × distance
    Answer: b) Mass × velocity
    Explanation: Momentum = m × v.
  4. The unit of impulse is:
    a) N s
    b) N m
    c) kg m/s²
    d) J
    Answer: a) N s
    Explanation: Impulse = force × time = N × s, equivalent to kg m/s.
  5. A body moving with uniform velocity has:
    a) Constant acceleration
    b) Zero acceleration
    c) Variable acceleration
    d) Infinite acceleration
    Answer: b) Zero acceleration
    Explanation: Uniform velocity means no change in velocity, so acceleration is zero.
  6. According to Newton’s third law, action and reaction forces:
    a) Act on the same body
    b) Are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction
    c) Are unequal in magnitude
    d) Act in the same direction
    Answer: b) Are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction
    Explanation: This is the statement of Newton’s third law.
  7. The frictional force is:
    a) Always attractive
    b) Always repulsive
    c) Opposes relative motion
    d) Independent of motion
    Answer: c) Opposes relative motion
    Explanation: Friction acts to oppose the relative motion between surfaces.
  8. The rate of change of momentum is equal to:
    a) Force
    b) Acceleration
    c) Velocity
    d) Energy
    Answer: a) Force
    Explanation: Newton’s second law: F = Δp/Δt.
  9. A projectile has maximum range when projected at an angle of:
    a) 30°
    b) 45°
    c) 60°
    d) 90°
    Answer: b) 45°
    Explanation: Range is maximum when θ = 45° for a given initial velocity.
  10. The time of flight of a projectile depends on:
    a) Horizontal velocity only
    b) Vertical velocity only
    c) Both horizontal and vertical velocities
    d) Mass of the projectile
    Answer: b) Vertical velocity only
    Explanation: Time of flight depends on the vertical component of velocity.
Chapter 4: Work and Energy (10 MCQs)
  1. Work is defined as:
    a) Force × distance
    b) Force × time
    c) Mass × acceleration
    d) Mass × velocity
    Answer: a) Force × distance
    Explanation: Work = F × d × cos θ.
  2. The unit of work in SI system is:
    a) Newton
    b) Joule
    c) Watt
    d) Pascal
    Answer: b) Joule
    Explanation: Joule = N × m.
  3. The work done by a force is zero when the angle between force and displacement is:
    a) 0°
    b) 45°
    c) 90°
    d) 180°
    Answer: c) 90°
    Explanation: Work = F × d × cos 90° = 0.
  4. Kinetic energy of a body is given by:
    a) mv
    b) ½ mv²
    c) mv²
    d) ½ mv
    Answer: b) ½ mv²
    Explanation: Kinetic energy = ½ × mass × (velocity)².
  5. The principle of conservation of energy states that:
    a) Energy can be created
    b) Energy can be destroyed
    c) Energy can neither be created nor destroyed
    d) Energy is always lost
    Answer: c) Energy can neither be created nor destroyed
    Explanation: This is the law of conservation of energy.
  6. The potential energy of a body at height h is:
    a) mgh
    b) ½ mgh
    c) mg/h
    d) mgh²
    Answer: a) mgh
    Explanation: Potential energy = mass × gravity × height.
  7. Power is defined as:
    a) Work × time
    b) Work / time
    c) Force × distance
    d) Mass × acceleration
    Answer: b) Work / time
    Explanation: Power = work done per unit time.
  8. The unit of power is:
    a) Joule
    b) Newton
    c) Watt
    d) Pascal
    Answer: c) Watt
    Explanation: Watt = J/s.
  9. A body of mass 2 kg is lifted to a height of 5 m. The potential energy gained is (g = 10 m/s²):
    a) 50 J
    b) 100 J
    c) 25 J
    d) 200 J
    Answer: b) 100 J
    Explanation: PE = mgh = 2 × 10 × 5 = 100 J.
  10. The work done in lifting a body is equal to:
    a) Kinetic energy gained
    b) Potential energy gained
    c) Total energy lost
    d) Power consumed
    Answer: b) Potential energy gained
    Explanation: Work done against gravity is stored as potential energy.
Chapter 5: Circular Motion (10 MCQs)
  1. The force that keeps a body in circular motion is called:
    a) Gravitational force
    b) Centripetal force
    c) Centrifugal force
    d) Frictional force
    Answer: b) Centripetal force
    Explanation: Centripetal force is the real force acting toward the center of the circular path.
  2. The centripetal force is given by:
    a) mv²/r
    b) mv/r
    c) mr²/v
    d) mv²r
    Answer: a) mv²/r
    Explanation: F = mv²/r, where m is mass, v is velocity, and r is radius.
  3. The angular velocity is measured in:
    a) rad/s
    b) m/s
    c) rad/s²
    d) m/s²
    Answer: a) rad/s
    Explanation: Angular velocity is the rate of change of angular displacement.
  4. The centripetal acceleration is directed:
    a) Along the tangent
    b) Toward the center
    c) Away from the center
    d) Parallel to the motion
    Answer: b) Toward the center
    Explanation: Centripetal acceleration always points toward the center of the circular path.
  5. The period of a body in circular motion is the time taken to complete:
    a) One revolution
    b) Half revolution
    c) Two revolutions
    d) One radian
    Answer: a) One revolution
    Explanation: Period is the time for one complete cycle.
  6. The relationship between linear velocity (v) and angular velocity (ω) is:
    a) v = ω/r
    b) v = ωr
    c) v = r/ω
    d) v = ω²r
    Answer: b) v = ωr
    Explanation: Linear velocity = radius × angular velocity.
  7. A car moving in a circular path experiences a centripetal force provided by:
    a) Gravity
    b) Friction
    c) Air resistance
    d) Engine thrust
    Answer: b) Friction
    Explanation: Friction between tires and road provides the necessary centripetal force.
  8. The centripetal force on a body of mass 1 kg moving with 2 m/s in a circle of radius 0.5 m is:
    a) 4 N
    b) 8 N
    c) 2 N
    d) 16 N
    Answer: b) 8 N
    Explanation: F = mv²/r = 1 × (2)² / 0.5 = 8 N.
  9. The angular acceleration is the rate of change of:
    a) Linear velocity
    b) Angular velocity
    c) Linear displacement
    d) Angular displacement
    Answer: b) Angular velocity
    Explanation: Angular acceleration = dω/dt.
  10. In uniform circular motion, the tangential acceleration is:
    a) Zero
    b) Constant
    c) Variable
    d) Infinite
    Answer: a) Zero
    Explanation: In uniform circular motion, speed is constant, so tangential acceleration is zero.
Chapter 6: Fluid Dynamics (10 MCQs)
  1. The equation of continuity is based on the conservation of:
    a) Energy
    b) Mass
    c) Momentum
    d) Force
    Answer: b) Mass
    Explanation: It states that mass flow rate is constant in a fluid system.
  2. Bernoulli’s equation is derived from the principle of conservation of:
    a) Mass
    b) Energy
    c) Momentum
    d) Force
    Answer: b) Energy
    Explanation: It relates pressure, kinetic, and potential energy of a fluid.
  3. The unit of viscosity in SI system is:
    a) N s/m²
    b) N m/s
    c) kg/m s
    d) N/m²
    Answer: a) N s/m²
    Explanation: Viscosity = force / (area × velocity gradient).
  4. The flow of a fluid is streamline if its velocity is:
    a) Zero
    b) Constant
    c) Less than critical velocity
    d) Greater than critical velocity
    Answer: c) Less than critical velocity
    Explanation: Streamline flow occurs below the critical velocity.
  5. The terminal velocity of a falling object is reached when:
    a) Net force is zero
    b) Acceleration is maximum
    c) Velocity is zero
    d) Drag force is zero
    Answer: a) Net force is zero
    Explanation: At terminal velocity, drag force equals gravitational force.
  6. According to Bernoulli’s principle, where the speed of a fluid is high, the pressure is:
    a) High
    b) Low
    c) Zero
    d) Constant
    Answer: b) Low
    Explanation: Bernoulli’s principle states an inverse relationship between speed and pressure.
  7. The dimension of viscosity is:
    a) [ML⁻¹T⁻¹]
    b) [MLT⁻²]
    c) [ML⁻¹T⁻²]
    d) [MLT⁻¹]
    Answer: a) [ML⁻¹T⁻¹]
    Explanation: Derived from force / (area × velocity gradient).
  8. Stokes’ law is applicable to:
    a) Large objects
    b) Small spherical objects in viscous fluid
    c) Objects in vacuum
    d) Turbulent flow
    Answer: b) Small spherical objects in viscous fluid
    Explanation: Stokes’ law gives the drag force on small spheres in laminar flow.
  9. The venturi meter is used to measure:
    a) Pressure
    b) Flow rate
    c) Viscosity
    d) Density
    Answer: b) Flow rate
    Explanation: It uses Bernoulli’s principle to measure fluid flow rate.
  10. The drag force on a sphere in a viscous fluid is proportional to:
    a) Radius
    b) Velocity
    c) Both radius and velocity
    d) Square of velocity
    Answer: c) Both radius and velocity
    Explanation: Stokes’ law: F = 6πηrv.
Chapter 7: Oscillations (10 MCQs)
  1. The motion of a simple pendulum is an example of:
    a) Linear motion
    b) Simple harmonic motion
    c) Circular motion
    d) Random motion
    Answer: b) Simple harmonic motion
    Explanation: It follows SHM for small angles.
  2. The time period of a simple pendulum depends on:
    a) Mass of the bob
    b) Length of the string
    c) Amplitude
    d) Material of the bob
    Answer: b) Length of the string
    Explanation: T = 2π√(L/g).
  3. The restoring force in SHM is proportional to:
    a) Velocity
    b) Acceleration
    c) Displacement
    d) Time
    Answer: c) Displacement
    Explanation: F = -kx, where x is displacement.
  4. The frequency of oscillation is measured in:
    a) Hertz
    b) Radian
    c) Joule
    d) Newton
    Answer: a) Hertz
    Explanation: Frequency = 1/time period, measured in Hz.
  5. In SHM, the total energy is:
    a) Constant
    b) Increasing
    c) Decreasing
    d) Zero
    Answer: a) Constant
    Explanation: Total energy (KE + PE) is conserved in ideal SHM.
  6. The maximum velocity in SHM occurs at:
    a) Extreme position
    b) Mean position
    c) Halfway between mean and extreme
    d) Any position
    Answer: b) Mean position
    Explanation: Velocity is maximum when displacement is zero.
  7. The angular frequency of a spring-mass system is given by:
    a) √(k/m)
    b) √(m/k)
    c) k/m
    d) m/k
    Answer: a) √(k/m)
    Explanation: ω = √(k/m), where k is spring constant and m is mass.
  8. Damped oscillations occur due to:
    a) Constant energy supply
    b) Frictional forces
    c) Increased amplitude
    d) Zero restoring force
    Answer: b) Frictional forces
    Explanation: Damping reduces amplitude due to energy loss.
  9. Resonance occurs when the driving frequency equals:
    a) Zero
    b) Natural frequency
    c) Double the natural frequency
    d) Half the natural frequency
    Answer: b) Natural frequency
    Explanation: Resonance maximizes amplitude at natural frequency.
  10. The potential energy in SHM is maximum at:
    a) Mean position
    b) Extreme position
    c) Halfway position
    d) Any position
    Answer: b) Extreme position
    Explanation: PE = ½ kx² is maximum at maximum displacement.
Chapter 8: Waves (10 MCQs)
  1. A wave that requires a medium to propagate is called:
    a) Electromagnetic wave
    b) Mechanical wave
    c) Transverse wave
    d) Longitudinal wave
    Answer: b) Mechanical wave
    Explanation: Mechanical waves need a medium, unlike electromagnetic waves.
  2. The distance between two consecutive crests of a wave is called:
    a) Amplitude
    b) Frequency
    c) Wavelength
    d) Time period
    Answer: c) Wavelength
    Explanation: Wavelength is the spatial period of a wave.
  3. The speed of a wave is given by:
    a) v = fλ
    b) v = f/λ
    c) v = λ/f
    d) v = f²λ
    Answer: a) v = fλ
    Explanation: Wave speed = frequency × wavelength.
  4. Sound waves are:
    a) Transverse waves
    b) Longitudinal waves
    c) Electromagnetic waves
    d) Stationary waves
    Answer: b) Longitudinal waves
    Explanation: Sound waves involve compression and rarefaction.
  5. The phenomenon of superposition of waves results in:
    a) Diffraction
    b) Interference
    c) Refraction
    d) Polarization
    Answer: b) Interference
    Explanation: Superposition leads to constructive or destructive interference.
  6. The frequency of a wave is 50 Hz, and its wavelength is 2 m. The wave speed is:
    a) 25 m/s
    b) 50 m/s
    c) 100 m/s
    d) 200 m/s
    Answer: c) 100 m/s
    Explanation: v = fλ = 50 × 2 = 100 m/s.
  7. Stationary waves are formed by the superposition of:
    a) Two waves traveling in the same direction
    b) Two waves of different frequencies
    c) Two waves traveling in opposite directions
    d) A single wave
    Answer: c) Two waves traveling in opposite directions
    Explanation: This creates nodes and antinodes.
  8. The speed of sound in air increases with:
    a) Decrease in temperature
    b) Increase in temperature
    c) Decrease in pressure
    d) Increase in humidity
    Answer: b) Increase in temperature
    Explanation: Speed of sound ∝ √T.
  9. The Doppler effect is observed when:
    a) Source and observer are stationary
    b) Source and observer are moving relative to each other
    c) Waves are stationary
    d) Medium is absent
    Answer: b) Source and observer are moving relative to each other
    Explanation: Doppler effect involves relative motion.
  10. In a stationary wave, the distance between two consecutive nodes is:
    a) λ
    b) λ/2
    c) λ/4
    d) 2λ
    Answer: b) λ/2
    Explanation: Node-to-node distance is half the wavelength.
Chapter 9: Physical Optics (10 MCQs)
  1. The phenomenon of bending of light around obstacles is called:
    a) Reflection
    b) Refraction
    c) Diffraction
    d) Interference
    Answer: c) Diffraction
    Explanation: Diffraction occurs when light bends around edges.
  2. Interference of light is evidence that light behaves as a:
    a) Particle
    b) Wave
    c) Both particle and wave
    d) Neither particle nor wave
    Answer: b) Wave
    Explanation: Interference is a wave property.
  3. Young’s double-slit experiment demonstrates:
    a) Diffraction
    b) Interference
    c) Refraction
    d) Polarization
    Answer: b) Interference
    Explanation: It shows constructive and destructive interference patterns.
  4. The condition for constructive interference is that the path difference is:
    a) nλ
    b) (n + ½)λ
    c) λ/2
    d) λ/4
    Answer: a) nλ
    Explanation: Path difference = nλ for bright fringes.
  5. The fringe spacing in Young’s double-slit experiment increases if:
    a) Slit separation increases
    b) Wavelength decreases
    c) Distance to screen decreases
    d) Wavelength increases
    Answer: d) Wavelength increases
    Explanation: Fringe spacing = λD/d.
  6. Diffraction is most pronounced when the slit width is:
    a) Much larger than wavelength
    b) Much smaller than wavelength
    c) Equal to wavelength
    d) Independent of wavelength
    Answer: c) Equal to wavelength
    Explanation: Maximum diffraction occurs when slit width ≈ wavelength.
  7. The colors in a soap bubble are due to:
    a) Reflection
    b) Refraction
    c) Interference
    d) Diffraction
    Answer: c) Interference
    Explanation: Thin-film interference causes color patterns.
  8. The unit of wavelength is:
    a) Meter
    b) Hertz
    c) Joule
    d) Newton
    Answer: a) Meter
    Explanation: Wavelength is a measure of distance.
  9. Polarization of light is possible because light is a:
    a) Longitudinal wave
    b) Transverse wave
    c) Mechanical wave
    d) Stationary wave
    Answer: b) Transverse wave
    Explanation: Polarization is a property of transverse waves.
  10. The central fringe in a diffraction pattern is always:
    a) Dark
    b) Bright
    c) Colored
    d) Absent
    Answer: b) Bright
    Explanation: The central maximum is due to constructive interference.
Chapter 10: Optical Instruments (10 MCQs)
  1. The least distance of distinct vision for a normal human eye is:
    a) 10 cm
    b) 25 cm
    c) 50 cm
    d) 100 cm
    Answer: b) 25 cm
    Explanation: This is the minimum distance for clear vision.
  2. The magnifying power of a simple microscope is maximum when the image is formed at:
    a) Infinity
    b) Near point
    c) Far point
    d) Focal point
    Answer: b) Near point
    Explanation: Maximum magnification occurs at the least distance of distinct vision.
  3. The objective lens of a compound microscope produces a:
    a) Virtual image
    b) Real image
    c) Diminished image
    d) Same-sized image
    Answer: b) Real image
    Explanation: The objective forms a real, magnified image.
  4. In an astronomical telescope, the final image is:
    a) Real and erect
    b) Virtual and inverted
    c) Real and inverted
    d) Virtual and erect
    Answer: b) Virtual and inverted
    Explanation: The final image in a telescope is inverted.
  5. The resolving power of an optical instrument depends on:
    a) Focal length
    b) Wavelength of light
    c) Aperture size
    d) Both b and c
    Answer: d) Both b and c
    Explanation: Resolving power ∝ 1/λ and depends on aperture.
  6. A spectrometer is used to measure:
    a) Speed of light
    b) Wavelength of light
    c) Intensity of light
    d) Polarization of light
    Answer: b) Wavelength of light
    Explanation: It analyzes the spectrum of light.
  7. The principle of total internal reflection is used in:
    a) Lenses
    b) Mirrors
    c) Optical fibers
    d) Prisms
    Answer: c) Optical fibers
    Explanation: Optical fibers rely on total internal reflection.
  8. The focal length of the objective lens of a telescope is:
    a) Smaller than the eyepiece
    b) Larger than the eyepiece
    c) Equal to the eyepiece
    d) Independent of the eyepiece
    Answer: b) Larger than the eyepiece
    Explanation: The objective has a longer focal length for greater magnification.
  9. The magnifying power of a compound microscope is the product of the magnifications of:
    a) Objective and eyepiece
    b) Objective and condenser
    c) Eyepiece and mirror
    d) Objective and prism
    Answer: a) Objective and eyepiece
    Explanation: M = Mₒ × Mₑ.
  10. In optical fibers, signal transmission occurs through:
    a) Refraction
    b) Total internal reflection
    c) Diffraction
    d) Interference
    Answer: b) Total internal reflection
    Explanation: Light travels by reflecting within the fiber.
Chapter 11: Heat and Thermodynamics (10 MCQs)
  1. The zeroth law of thermodynamics defines:
    a) Temperature
    b) Heat
    c) Internal energy
    d) Entropy
    Answer: a) Temperature
    Explanation: It establishes thermal equilibrium and temperature measurement.
  2. The first law of thermodynamics is a statement of conservation of:
    a) Mass
    b) Energy
    c) Momentum
    d) Charge
    Answer: b) Energy
    Explanation: ΔU = Q – W, where energy is conserved.
  3. The unit of entropy in SI system is:
    a) J/K
    b) J kg/K
    c) J/m³
    d) J s
    Answer: a) J/K
    Explanation: Entropy = heat / temperature.
  4. An isothermal process occurs at constant:
    a) Pressure
    b) Volume
    c) Temperature
    d) Internal energy
    Answer: c) Temperature
    Explanation: Isothermal means constant temperature.
  5. The efficiency of a Carnot engine depends on:
    a) Working substance
    b) Temperatures of source and sink
    c) Pressure
    d) Volume
    Answer: b) Temperatures of source and sink
    Explanation: η = 1 – (T₂/T₁).
  6. The specific heat of a gas is measured in:
    a) J/kg K
    b) J/mol K
    c) J/K
    d) J kg
    Answer: a) J/kg K
    Explanation: Specific heat is heat per unit mass per unit temperature.
  7. In an adiabatic process, there is no:
    a) Work done
    b) Heat exchange
    c) Change in internal energy
    d) Change in temperature
    Answer: b) Heat exchange
    Explanation: Adiabatic means Q = 0.
  8. The second law of thermodynamics states that:
    a) Heat flows from hot to cold spontaneously
    b) Energy is conserved
    c) Work equals heat
    d) Temperature is absolute
    Answer: a) Heat flows from hot to cold spontaneously
    Explanation: It introduces the concept of entropy and direction of heat flow.
  9. The internal energy of an ideal gas depends on:
    a) Pressure
    b) Volume
    c) Temperature
    d) Mass
    Answer: c) Temperature
    Explanation: For an ideal gas, U ∝ T.
  10. A heat engine converts:
    a) Heat into work
    b) Work into heat
    c) Heat into pressure
    d) Work into volume
    Answer: a) Heat into work
    Explanation: A heat engine uses heat to perform mechanical work.
Notes:
  • These MCQs are based on the FBISE syllabus for 11th class Physics and cover key concepts from each chapter.
  • For additional practice, students can refer to resources like www.pkmcqs.com or www.notes92.com for chapter-wise MCQs and notes tailored to FBISE.
  • If you need more specific questions, numerical-based MCQs, or past paper questions, please let me know, and I can tailor the content further!


Location: Rawalpindi, Pakistan

Comments

Post a Comment

Popular posts from this blog

List of popular free ad posting websites in Pakistan where you can post classified ads

 L ist of popular free ad posting websites in Pakistan where you can post classified ads Here’s a list of popular free ad posting websites in Pakistan where you can post classified ads for various categories like real estate, vehicles, electronics, jobs, services, and more. These platforms are widely used and offer user-friendly interfaces for posting ads without charges: 1. **OLX Pakistan** (https://www.olx.com.pk) - One of the largest and most popular platforms in Pakistan for free ad posting. - Categories include cars, property, electronics, jobs, services, and more. - Features mobile apps and built-in chat/call options.[](https://www.olitt.com/blog/free-classified-websites-in-pakistan/)[](https://www.boundlesstech.net/blogs/top-10-free-classified-ads-posting-website-for-pakistan/) 2. **OnlineAds.pk** (https://www.onlineads.pk) - A leading free classified ads platform for buying and selling items like mobiles, real estate, cars, and household goods. - ...
Read more

List of free business directories in Pakistan

 List of free business directories in Pakistan Here’s a list of free business directories in Pakistan where you can list your business to enhance visibility, improve SEO, and connect with potential customers. These directories are particularly useful for small businesses and startups looking to promote their products or services without significant costs. The information is based on reputable online sources and focuses on directories that offer free listing options. 1. **BusinessList.pk**      - A verified online business directory for Pakistani businesses across various categories and cities. It’s human-managed for accurate information and helps increase visibility and attract new customers.      - Website: www.businesslist.pk[](https://www.businesslist.pk) 2. **Pakistanies.com**      - A professional web directory offering free business listings and a web store for selling products or services in Pakistan and globally....
Read more

List of wholesale coffee dealers in Pakistan, compiled based on available information from web sources.

 List of wholesale coffee dealers in Pakistan, compiled based on available information from web sources. Below is a list of wholesale coffee dealers in Pakistan, compiled based on available information from web sources. I’ve included their names, contact details, addresses, and URLs where available. Note that some details may be incomplete due to limited information or lack of direct wholesale-specific data. For the most accurate and up-to-date information, I recommend contacting the businesses directly or visiting their websites. --- ### 1. Grao Coffee Company - **Description**: Grao Coffee imports high-quality coffee beans from global farms, roasts them in-house, and supplies to coffee shops, cafes, and wholesalers across Pakistan. They focus on single-origin and blended coffee beans. - **Address**: Not explicitly listed, but they operate a roastery and distribute nationwide, including Karachi, Lahore, and Islamabad. - **Contact Number**: Not provided on the website; contact thro...
Read more