MCQS for physic 11th class FBISE all chapters

 MCQS  for physic 11th class FBISE



Below are the requested Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) for each specified chapter from the 11th class Physics curriculum of the Federal Board of Intermediate and Secondary Education (FBISE), Islamabad. These MCQs are designed to align with the FBISE syllabus and cover key concepts from the respective chapters. Each set contains 10 MCQs with four options, one correct answer, and a brief explanation where necessary.

Chapter 1: Measurements (10 MCQs)
  1. Which of the following is a base unit in the SI system?
    a) Newton
    b) Joule
    c) Kilogram
    d) Watt
    Answer: c) Kilogram
    Explanation: Kilogram is a base unit for mass in the SI system, while Newton, Joule, and Watt are derived units.
  2. The number of significant figures in 0.00560 is:
    a) 2
    b) 3
    c) 4
    d) 5
    Answer: b) 3
    Explanation: Leading zeros are not significant; the digits 5, 6, and 0 are significant, giving 3 significant figures.
  3. The dimension of force is:
    a) [MLT⁻¹]
    b) [MLT⁻²]
    c) [ML²T⁻²]
    d) [ML⁻¹T⁻²]
    Answer: b) [MLT⁻²]
    Explanation: Force = mass × acceleration = [M] × [LT⁻²] = [MLT⁻²].
  4. A measurement of 5.2 cm has an error of ±0.1 cm. The percentage error is:
    a) 1.92%
    b) 2.92%
    c) 0.92%
    d) 3.92%
    Answer: a) 1.92%
    Explanation: Percentage error = (0.1 / 5.2) × 100 ≈ 1.92%.
  5. Which instrument is most suitable for measuring the diameter of a wire?
    a) Vernier caliper
    b) Screw gauge
    c) Meter rule
    d) Measuring tape
    Answer: b) Screw gauge
    Explanation: A screw gauge provides high precision for small measurements like the diameter of a wire.
  6. The unit of Planck’s constant in SI system is:
    a) J s
    b) J/s
    c) N m
    d) W s
    Answer: a) J s
    Explanation: Planck’s constant has dimensions of energy × time, which is Joule-second (J s).
  7. One light-year is a unit of:
    a) Time
    b) Distance
    c) Speed
    d) Energy
    Answer: b) Distance
    Explanation: A light-year is the distance light travels in one year.
  8. The least count of a vernier caliper with 10 divisions on the vernier scale and 1 mm main scale division is:
    a) 0.1 mm
    b) 0.01 mm
    c) 0.05 mm
    d) 0.2 mm
    Answer: a) 0.1 mm
    Explanation: Least count = 1 mm / 10 = 0.1 mm.
  9. Which of the following is a dimensionless quantity?
    a) Density
    b) Angle
    c) Pressure
    d) Work
    Answer: b) Angle
    Explanation: Angle is measured in radians, which is a ratio and thus dimensionless.
  10. The error in a measurement can be reduced by:
    a) Using a less precise instrument
    b) Taking multiple readings and averaging
    c) Increasing the temperature of the system
    d) Using a single reading
    Answer: b) Taking multiple readings and averaging
    Explanation: Averaging multiple readings reduces random errors.

Chapter 2: Vectors and Equilibrium (10 MCQs)
  1. A vector quantity has:
    a) Only magnitude
    b) Only direction
    c) Both magnitude and direction
    d) Neither magnitude nor direction
    Answer: c) Both magnitude and direction
    Explanation: Vectors are defined by both magnitude and direction.
  2. The dot product of two perpendicular vectors is:
    a) Zero
    b) One
    c) Negative
    d) Equal to their magnitudes
    Answer: a) Zero
    Explanation: Dot product = A·B = AB cos 90° = 0.
  3. The condition for equilibrium of a body is:
    a) Net force is zero
    b) Net torque is zero
    c) Both net force and net torque are zero
    d) Acceleration is zero
    Answer: c) Both net force and net torque are zero
    Explanation: For complete equilibrium, both translational and rotational equilibrium are required.
  4. The angle between two vectors A and B if their cross product is zero is:
    a) 0°
    b) 90°
    c) 180°
    d) 45°
    Answer: a) 0° or c) 180° (both correct, but choose a)
    Explanation: Cross product = AB sin θ = 0 when θ = 0° or 180°.
  5. The magnitude of the resultant of two equal vectors at 90° to each other is:
    a) A
    b) A√2
    c) 2A
    d) A/√2
    Answer: b) A√2
    Explanation: Resultant = √(A² + A²) = A√2.
  6. Torque is a:
    a) Scalar quantity
    b) Vector quantity
    c) Dimensionless quantity
    d) Unitless quantity
    Answer: b) Vector quantity
    Explanation: Torque has direction and is calculated as a cross product.
  7. The unit of torque in SI system is:
    a) N m
    b) N/m
    c) J/s
    d) kg m/s²
    Answer: a) N m
    Explanation: Torque = force × distance = N × m.
  8. If two forces of 3 N and 4 N act at right angles, the magnitude of their resultant is:
    a) 5 N
    b) 7 N
    c) 12 N
    d) 1 N
    Answer: a) 5 N
    Explanation: Resultant = √(3² + 4²) = √25 = 5 N.
  9. A body is in rotational equilibrium when:
    a) Net force is zero
    b) Net torque is zero
    c) Velocity is constant
    d) Acceleration is zero
    Answer: b) Net torque is zero
    Explanation: Rotational equilibrium requires zero net torque.
  10. The rectangular components of a vector are equal if the vector makes an angle with the x-axis of:
    a) 0°
    b) 45°
    c) 90°
    d) 180°
    Answer: b) 45°
    Explanation: At 45°, cos θ = sin θ, so x and y components are equal.

Chapter 3: Motion and Force (10 MCQs)
  1. The slope of a velocity-time graph gives:
    a) Displacement
    b) Acceleration
    c) Distance
    d) Speed
    Answer: b) Acceleration
    Explanation: Slope = change in velocity / time = acceleration.
  2. Newton’s first law of motion is also called the law of:
    a) Inertia
    b) Force
    c) Acceleration
    d) Momentum
    Answer: a) Inertia
    Explanation: It states that a body remains at rest or in uniform motion unless acted upon by a force.
  3. The momentum of a body is defined as:
    a) Mass × acceleration
    b) Mass × velocity
    c) Force × time
    d) Force × distance
    Answer: b) Mass × velocity
    Explanation: Momentum = m × v.
  4. The unit of impulse is:
    a) N s
    b) N m
    c) kg m/s²
    d) J
    Answer: a) N s
    Explanation: Impulse = force × time = N × s, equivalent to kg m/s.
  5. A body moving with uniform velocity has:
    a) Constant acceleration
    b) Zero acceleration
    c) Variable acceleration
    d) Infinite acceleration
    Answer: b) Zero acceleration
    Explanation: Uniform velocity means no change in velocity, so acceleration is zero.
  6. According to Newton’s third law, action and reaction forces:
    a) Act on the same body
    b) Are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction
    c) Are unequal in magnitude
    d) Act in the same direction
    Answer: b) Are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction
    Explanation: This is the statement of Newton’s third law.
  7. The frictional force is:
    a) Always attractive
    b) Always repulsive
    c) Opposes relative motion
    d) Independent of motion
    Answer: c) Opposes relative motion
    Explanation: Friction acts to oppose the relative motion between surfaces.
  8. The rate of change of momentum is equal to:
    a) Force
    b) Acceleration
    c) Velocity
    d) Energy
    Answer: a) Force
    Explanation: Newton’s second law: F = Δp/Δt.
  9. A projectile has maximum range when projected at an angle of:
    a) 30°
    b) 45°
    c) 60°
    d) 90°
    Answer: b) 45°
    Explanation: Range is maximum when θ = 45° for a given initial velocity.
  10. The time of flight of a projectile depends on:
    a) Horizontal velocity only
    b) Vertical velocity only
    c) Both horizontal and vertical velocities
    d) Mass of the projectile
    Answer: b) Vertical velocity only
    Explanation: Time of flight depends on the vertical component of velocity.

Chapter 4: Work and Energy (10 MCQs)
  1. Work is defined as:
    a) Force × distance
    b) Force × time
    c) Mass × acceleration
    d) Mass × velocity
    Answer: a) Force × distance
    Explanation: Work = F × d × cos θ.
  2. The unit of work in SI system is:
    a) Newton
    b) Joule
    c) Watt
    d) Pascal
    Answer: b) Joule
    Explanation: Joule = N × m.
  3. The work done by a force is zero when the angle between force and displacement is:
    a) 0°
    b) 45°
    c) 90°
    d) 180°
    Answer: c) 90°
    Explanation: Work = F × d × cos 90° = 0.
  4. Kinetic energy of a body is given by:
    a) mv
    b) ½ mv²
    c) mv²
    d) ½ mv
    Answer: b) ½ mv²
    Explanation: Kinetic energy = ½ × mass × (velocity)².
  5. The principle of conservation of energy states that:
    a) Energy can be created
    b) Energy can be destroyed
    c) Energy can neither be created nor destroyed
    d) Energy is always lost
    Answer: c) Energy can neither be created nor destroyed
    Explanation: This is the law of conservation of energy.
  6. The potential energy of a body at height h is:
    a) mgh
    b) ½ mgh
    c) mg/h
    d) mgh²
    Answer: a) mgh
    Explanation: Potential energy = mass × gravity × height.
  7. Power is defined as:
    a) Work × time
    b) Work / time
    c) Force × distance
    d) Mass × acceleration
    Answer: b) Work / time
    Explanation: Power = work done per unit time.
  8. The unit of power is:
    a) Joule
    b) Newton
    c) Watt
    d) Pascal
    Answer: c) Watt
    Explanation: Watt = J/s.
  9. A body of mass 2 kg is lifted to a height of 5 m. The potential energy gained is (g = 10 m/s²):
    a) 50 J
    b) 100 J
    c) 25 J
    d) 200 J
    Answer: b) 100 J
    Explanation: PE = mgh = 2 × 10 × 5 = 100 J.
  10. The work done in lifting a body is equal to:
    a) Kinetic energy gained
    b) Potential energy gained
    c) Total energy lost
    d) Power consumed
    Answer: b) Potential energy gained
    Explanation: Work done against gravity is stored as potential energy.

Chapter 5: Circular Motion (10 MCQs)
  1. The force that keeps a body in circular motion is called:
    a) Gravitational force
    b) Centripetal force
    c) Centrifugal force
    d) Frictional force
    Answer: b) Centripetal force
    Explanation: Centripetal force is the real force acting toward the center of the circular path.
  2. The centripetal force is given by:
    a) mv²/r
    b) mv/r
    c) mr²/v
    d) mv²r
    Answer: a) mv²/r
    Explanation: F = mv²/r, where m is mass, v is velocity, and r is radius.
  3. The angular velocity is measured in:
    a) rad/s
    b) m/s
    c) rad/s²
    d) m/s²
    Answer: a) rad/s
    Explanation: Angular velocity is the rate of change of angular displacement.
  4. The centripetal acceleration is directed:
    a) Along the tangent
    b) Toward the center
    c) Away from the center
    d) Parallel to the motion
    Answer: b) Toward the center
    Explanation: Centripetal acceleration always points toward the center of the circular path.
  5. The period of a body in circular motion is the time taken to complete:
    a) One revolution
    b) Half revolution
    c) Two revolutions
    d) One radian
    Answer: a) One revolution
    Explanation: Period is the time for one complete cycle.
  6. The relationship between linear velocity (v) and angular velocity (ω) is:
    a) v = ω/r
    b) v = ωr
    c) v = r/ω
    d) v = ω²r
    Answer: b) v = ωr
    Explanation: Linear velocity = radius × angular velocity.
  7. A car moving in a circular path experiences a centripetal force provided by:
    a) Gravity
    b) Friction
    c) Air resistance
    d) Engine thrust
    Answer: b) Friction
    Explanation: Friction between tires and road provides the necessary centripetal force.
  8. The centripetal force on a body of mass 1 kg moving with 2 m/s in a circle of radius 0.5 m is:
    a) 4 N
    b) 8 N
    c) 2 N
    d) 16 N
    Answer: b) 8 N
    Explanation: F = mv²/r = 1 × (2)² / 0.5 = 8 N.
  9. The angular acceleration is the rate of change of:
    a) Linear velocity
    b) Angular velocity
    c) Linear displacement
    d) Angular displacement
    Answer: b) Angular velocity
    Explanation: Angular acceleration = dω/dt.
  10. In uniform circular motion, the tangential acceleration is:
    a) Zero
    b) Constant
    c) Variable
    d) Infinite
    Answer: a) Zero
    Explanation: In uniform circular motion, speed is constant, so tangential acceleration is zero.

Chapter 6: Fluid Dynamics (10 MCQs)
  1. The equation of continuity is based on the conservation of:
    a) Energy
    b) Mass
    c) Momentum
    d) Force
    Answer: b) Mass
    Explanation: It states that mass flow rate is constant in a fluid system.
  2. Bernoulli’s equation is derived from the principle of conservation of:
    a) Mass
    b) Energy
    c) Momentum
    d) Force
    Answer: b) Energy
    Explanation: It relates pressure, kinetic, and potential energy of a fluid.
  3. The unit of viscosity in SI system is:
    a) N s/m²
    b) N m/s
    c) kg/m s
    d) N/m²
    Answer: a) N s/m²
    Explanation: Viscosity = force / (area × velocity gradient).
  4. The flow of a fluid is streamline if its velocity is:
    a) Zero
    b) Constant
    c) Less than critical velocity
    d) Greater than critical velocity
    Answer: c) Less than critical velocity
    Explanation: Streamline flow occurs below the critical velocity.
  5. The terminal velocity of a falling object is reached when:
    a) Net force is zero
    b) Acceleration is maximum
    c) Velocity is zero
    d) Drag force is zero
    Answer: a) Net force is zero
    Explanation: At terminal velocity, drag force equals gravitational force.
  6. According to Bernoulli’s principle, where the speed of a fluid is high, the pressure is:
    a) High
    b) Low
    c) Zero
    d) Constant
    Answer: b) Low
    Explanation: Bernoulli’s principle states an inverse relationship between speed and pressure.
  7. The dimension of viscosity is:
    a) [ML⁻¹T⁻¹]
    b) [MLT⁻²]
    c) [ML⁻¹T⁻²]
    d) [MLT⁻¹]
    Answer: a) [ML⁻¹T⁻¹]
    Explanation: Derived from force / (area × velocity gradient).
  8. Stokes’ law is applicable to:
    a) Large objects
    b) Small spherical objects in viscous fluid
    c) Objects in vacuum
    d) Turbulent flow
    Answer: b) Small spherical objects in viscous fluid
    Explanation: Stokes’ law gives the drag force on small spheres in laminar flow.
  9. The venturi meter is used to measure:
    a) Pressure
    b) Flow rate
    c) Viscosity
    d) Density
    Answer: b) Flow rate
    Explanation: It uses Bernoulli’s principle to measure fluid flow rate.
  10. The drag force on a sphere in a viscous fluid is proportional to:
    a) Radius
    b) Velocity
    c) Both radius and velocity
    d) Square of velocity
    Answer: c) Both radius and velocity
    Explanation: Stokes’ law: F = 6πηrv.

Chapter 7: Oscillations (10 MCQs)
  1. The motion of a simple pendulum is an example of:
    a) Linear motion
    b) Simple harmonic motion
    c) Circular motion
    d) Random motion
    Answer: b) Simple harmonic motion
    Explanation: It follows SHM for small angles.
  2. The time period of a simple pendulum depends on:
    a) Mass of the bob
    b) Length of the string
    c) Amplitude
    d) Material of the bob
    Answer: b) Length of the string
    Explanation: T = 2π√(L/g).
  3. The restoring force in SHM is proportional to:
    a) Velocity
    b) Acceleration
    c) Displacement
    d) Time
    Answer: c) Displacement
    Explanation: F = -kx, where x is displacement.
  4. The frequency of oscillation is measured in:
    a) Hertz
    b) Radian
    c) Joule
    d) Newton
    Answer: a) Hertz
    Explanation: Frequency = 1/time period, measured in Hz.
  5. In SHM, the total energy is:
    a) Constant
    b) Increasing
    c) Decreasing
    d) Zero
    Answer: a) Constant
    Explanation: Total energy (KE + PE) is conserved in ideal SHM.
  6. The maximum velocity in SHM occurs at:
    a) Extreme position
    b) Mean position
    c) Halfway between mean and extreme
    d) Any position
    Answer: b) Mean position
    Explanation: Velocity is maximum when displacement is zero.
  7. The angular frequency of a spring-mass system is given by:
    a) √(k/m)
    b) √(m/k)
    c) k/m
    d) m/k
    Answer: a) √(k/m)
    Explanation: ω = √(k/m), where k is spring constant and m is mass.
  8. Damped oscillations occur due to:
    a) Constant energy supply
    b) Frictional forces
    c) Increased amplitude
    d) Zero restoring force
    Answer: b) Frictional forces
    Explanation: Damping reduces amplitude due to energy loss.
  9. Resonance occurs when the driving frequency equals:
    a) Zero
    b) Natural frequency
    c) Double the natural frequency
    d) Half the natural frequency
    Answer: b) Natural frequency
    Explanation: Resonance maximizes amplitude at natural frequency.
  10. The potential energy in SHM is maximum at:
    a) Mean position
    b) Extreme position
    c) Halfway position
    d) Any position
    Answer: b) Extreme position
    Explanation: PE = ½ kx² is maximum at maximum displacement.

Chapter 8: Waves (10 MCQs)
  1. A wave that requires a medium to propagate is called:
    a) Electromagnetic wave
    b) Mechanical wave
    c) Transverse wave
    d) Longitudinal wave
    Answer: b) Mechanical wave
    Explanation: Mechanical waves need a medium, unlike electromagnetic waves.
  2. The distance between two consecutive crests of a wave is called:
    a) Amplitude
    b) Frequency
    c) Wavelength
    d) Time period
    Answer: c) Wavelength
    Explanation: Wavelength is the spatial period of a wave.
  3. The speed of a wave is given by:
    a) v = fλ
    b) v = f/λ
    c) v = λ/f
    d) v = f²λ
    Answer: a) v = fλ
    Explanation: Wave speed = frequency × wavelength.
  4. Sound waves are:
    a) Transverse waves
    b) Longitudinal waves
    c) Electromagnetic waves
    d) Stationary waves
    Answer: b) Longitudinal waves
    Explanation: Sound waves involve compression and rarefaction.
  5. The phenomenon of superposition of waves results in:
    a) Diffraction
    b) Interference
    c) Refraction
    d) Polarization
    Answer: b) Interference
    Explanation: Superposition leads to constructive or destructive interference.
  6. The frequency of a wave is 50 Hz, and its wavelength is 2 m. The wave speed is:
    a) 25 m/s
    b) 50 m/s
    c) 100 m/s
    d) 200 m/s
    Answer: c) 100 m/s
    Explanation: v = fλ = 50 × 2 = 100 m/s.
  7. Stationary waves are formed by the superposition of:
    a) Two waves traveling in the same direction
    b) Two waves of different frequencies
    c) Two waves traveling in opposite directions
    d) A single wave
    Answer: c) Two waves traveling in opposite directions
    Explanation: This creates nodes and antinodes.
  8. The speed of sound in air increases with:
    a) Decrease in temperature
    b) Increase in temperature
    c) Decrease in pressure
    d) Increase in humidity
    Answer: b) Increase in temperature
    Explanation: Speed of sound ∝ √T.
  9. The Doppler effect is observed when:
    a) Source and observer are stationary
    b) Source and observer are moving relative to each other
    c) Waves are stationary
    d) Medium is absent
    Answer: b) Source and observer are moving relative to each other
    Explanation: Doppler effect involves relative motion.
  10. In a stationary wave, the distance between two consecutive nodes is:
    a) λ
    b) λ/2
    c) λ/4
    d) 2λ
    Answer: b) λ/2
    Explanation: Node-to-node distance is half the wavelength.

Chapter 9: Physical Optics (10 MCQs)
  1. The phenomenon of bending of light around obstacles is called:
    a) Reflection
    b) Refraction
    c) Diffraction
    d) Interference
    Answer: c) Diffraction
    Explanation: Diffraction occurs when light bends around edges.
  2. Interference of light is evidence that light behaves as a:
    a) Particle
    b) Wave
    c) Both particle and wave
    d) Neither particle nor wave
    Answer: b) Wave
    Explanation: Interference is a wave property.
  3. Young’s double-slit experiment demonstrates:
    a) Diffraction
    b) Interference
    c) Refraction
    d) Polarization
    Answer: b) Interference
    Explanation: It shows constructive and destructive interference patterns.
  4. The condition for constructive interference is that the path difference is:
    a) nλ
    b) (n + ½)λ
    c) λ/2
    d) λ/4
    Answer: a) nλ
    Explanation: Path difference = nλ for bright fringes.
  5. The fringe spacing in Young’s double-slit experiment increases if:
    a) Slit separation increases
    b) Wavelength decreases
    c) Distance to screen decreases
    d) Wavelength increases
    Answer: d) Wavelength increases
    Explanation: Fringe spacing = λD/d.
  6. Diffraction is most pronounced when the slit width is:
    a) Much larger than wavelength
    b) Much smaller than wavelength
    c) Equal to wavelength
    d) Independent of wavelength
    Answer: c) Equal to wavelength
    Explanation: Maximum diffraction occurs when slit width ≈ wavelength.
  7. The colors in a soap bubble are due to:
    a) Reflection
    b) Refraction
    c) Interference
    d) Diffraction
    Answer: c) Interference
    Explanation: Thin-film interference causes color patterns.
  8. The unit of wavelength is:
    a) Meter
    b) Hertz
    c) Joule
    d) Newton
    Answer: a) Meter
    Explanation: Wavelength is a measure of distance.
  9. Polarization of light is possible because light is a:
    a) Longitudinal wave
    b) Transverse wave
    c) Mechanical wave
    d) Stationary wave
    Answer: b) Transverse wave
    Explanation: Polarization is a property of transverse waves.
  10. The central fringe in a diffraction pattern is always:
    a) Dark
    b) Bright
    c) Colored
    d) Absent
    Answer: b) Bright
    Explanation: The central maximum is due to constructive interference.

Chapter 10: Optical Instruments (10 MCQs)
  1. The least distance of distinct vision for a normal human eye is:
    a) 10 cm
    b) 25 cm
    c) 50 cm
    d) 100 cm
    Answer: b) 25 cm
    Explanation: This is the minimum distance for clear vision.
  2. The magnifying power of a simple microscope is maximum when the image is formed at:
    a) Infinity
    b) Near point
    c) Far point
    d) Focal point
    Answer: b) Near point
    Explanation: Maximum magnification occurs at the least distance of distinct vision.
  3. The objective lens of a compound microscope produces a:
    a) Virtual image
    b) Real image
    c) Diminished image
    d) Same-sized image
    Answer: b) Real image
    Explanation: The objective forms a real, magnified image.
  4. In an astronomical telescope, the final image is:
    a) Real and erect
    b) Virtual and inverted
    c) Real and inverted
    d) Virtual and erect
    Answer: b) Virtual and inverted
    Explanation: The final image in a telescope is inverted.
  5. The resolving power of an optical instrument depends on:
    a) Focal length
    b) Wavelength of light
    c) Aperture size
    d) Both b and c
    Answer: d) Both b and c
    Explanation: Resolving power ∝ 1/λ and depends on aperture.
  6. A spectrometer is used to measure:
    a) Speed of light
    b) Wavelength of light
    c) Intensity of light
    d) Polarization of light
    Answer: b) Wavelength of light
    Explanation: It analyzes the spectrum of light.
  7. The principle of total internal reflection is used in:
    a) Lenses
    b) Mirrors
    c) Optical fibers
    d) Prisms
    Answer: c) Optical fibers
    Explanation: Optical fibers rely on total internal reflection.
  8. The focal length of the objective lens of a telescope is:
    a) Smaller than the eyepiece
    b) Larger than the eyepiece
    c) Equal to the eyepiece
    d) Independent of the eyepiece
    Answer: b) Larger than the eyepiece
    Explanation: The objective has a longer focal length for greater magnification.
  9. The magnifying power of a compound microscope is the product of the magnifications of:
    a) Objective and eyepiece
    b) Objective and condenser
    c) Eyepiece and mirror
    d) Objective and prism
    Answer: a) Objective and eyepiece
    Explanation: M = Mₒ × Mₑ.
  10. In optical fibers, signal transmission occurs through:
    a) Refraction
    b) Total internal reflection
    c) Diffraction
    d) Interference
    Answer: b) Total internal reflection
    Explanation: Light travels by reflecting within the fiber.

Chapter 11: Heat and Thermodynamics (10 MCQs)
  1. The zeroth law of thermodynamics defines:
    a) Temperature
    b) Heat
    c) Internal energy
    d) Entropy
    Answer: a) Temperature
    Explanation: It establishes thermal equilibrium and temperature measurement.
  2. The first law of thermodynamics is a statement of conservation of:
    a) Mass
    b) Energy
    c) Momentum
    d) Charge
    Answer: b) Energy
    Explanation: ΔU = Q – W, where energy is conserved.
  3. The unit of entropy in SI system is:
    a) J/K
    b) J kg/K
    c) J/m³
    d) J s
    Answer: a) J/K
    Explanation: Entropy = heat / temperature.
  4. An isothermal process occurs at constant:
    a) Pressure
    b) Volume
    c) Temperature
    d) Internal energy
    Answer: c) Temperature
    Explanation: Isothermal means constant temperature.
  5. The efficiency of a Carnot engine depends on:
    a) Working substance
    b) Temperatures of source and sink
    c) Pressure
    d) Volume
    Answer: b) Temperatures of source and sink
    Explanation: η = 1 – (T₂/T₁).
  6. The specific heat of a gas is measured in:
    a) J/kg K
    b) J/mol K
    c) J/K
    d) J kg
    Answer: a) J/kg K
    Explanation: Specific heat is heat per unit mass per unit temperature.
  7. In an adiabatic process, there is no:
    a) Work done
    b) Heat exchange
    c) Change in internal energy
    d) Change in temperature
    Answer: b) Heat exchange
    Explanation: Adiabatic means Q = 0.
  8. The second law of thermodynamics states that:
    a) Heat flows from hot to cold spontaneously
    b) Energy is conserved
    c) Work equals heat
    d) Temperature is absolute
    Answer: a) Heat flows from hot to cold spontaneously
    Explanation: It introduces the concept of entropy and direction of heat flow.
  9. The internal energy of an ideal gas depends on:
    a) Pressure
    b) Volume
    c) Temperature
    d) Mass
    Answer: c) Temperature
    Explanation: For an ideal gas, U ∝ T.
  10. A heat engine converts:
    a) Heat into work
    b) Work into heat
    c) Heat into pressure
    d) Work into volume
    Answer: a) Heat into work
    Explanation: A heat engine uses heat to perform mechanical work.

Notes:
  • These MCQs are based on the FBISE syllabus for 11th class Physics and cover key concepts from each chapter.
  • For additional practice, students can refer to resources like www.pkmcqs.com or www.notes92.com for chapter-wise MCQs and notes tailored to FBISE.
  • If you need more specific questions, numerical-based MCQs, or past paper questions, please let me know, and I can tailor the content further!

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